Rolls Royce $RR $RR.L $RYCEY Equity Valuation
RR. or RR.L is currently trading at approximately 100.56 GBX or $1.317 whereas RYCEY is trading at $3.18. When looking at the statistics on Yahoo finance, I see that both tickers have the same number of shares outstanding, same float, and the same market cap. This makes me think that shares trading under each ticker represent equity in the same exact corporate entity (duh, right). However, if that is the case, then why the valuation discrepancy? If a share of RYCEY represents the same ownership percentage as a share of RR.L, then the market is way off. However, I don't think that is the case. Do these shares in fact represent different ownership stakes, with a share of RYCEY representing an ownership stake approx. 2.4 times greater than that of a share of RR.L? Lastly, when dealing with companies, such as $BABA for example, which are trading on multiple exchanges, is it normative or at least not unexpected that shares of the same company, but under different tickers, could represent different ownership stakes in the overarching corporation?
Submitted November 11, 2020 at 05:33PM by Wild-Commission-7940
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