If a bull buys an inverse ETF does that make them a bear?
I can't wrap my mind around this shit. I don't buy puts because I'm not gay, but I do buy calls in inverse ETFs, which is essentially the same as buying a put. So maybe I am gay after all?
Submitted November 12, 2020 at 05:44PM by EotEaH
via reddit https://ift.tt/32DcxR8